2025 Correct Practice Tests of 350-701 Dumps with Practice Exam

Certification Sample Questions of 350-701 Dumps With 100% Exam Passing Guarantee

Understanding functional and technical aspects of Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Content Security

The following will be discussed in CISCO 350-701 exam dumps:

• Describe web proxy identity and authentication including transparent user identification
• Describe the components, capabilities, and benefits of Cisco Umbrella
• Implement traffic redirection and capture methods
• Configure and verify email security features such as SPAM filtering, antimalware filtering, DLP, block listing, and email encryption

 

NEW QUESTION # 412
Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASA within AWS public cloud?

• A. IPv6
• B. user deployment of Layer 3 networks
• C. multiple context mode
• D. clustering

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 413
How does Cisco Workload Optimization portion of the network do EPP solutions solely performance issues?

• A. It optimizes a flow path
• B. It sets up a workload forensic score
• C. It deploys an AWS Lambda system
• D. It automates resource resizing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 414
What are two rootkit types? (Choose two)

• A. registry
• B. virtual
• C. bootloader
• D. buffer mode
• E. user mode

Answer: D,E

NEW QUESTION # 415
What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?

• A. It includes multiple interfaces and access rules between interfaces are customizable
• B. It has an IP address on its BVI interface and is used for management traffic
• C. It is a Layer 3 segment and includes one port and customizable access rules
• D. It allows ARP traffic with a single access rule

Answer: A

Explanation:
A bridge group is a group of interfaces that the ASA bridges instead of routes. Bridge groups are only supported in Transparent Firewall Mode. Like any other firewall interfaces, access control between interfaces is controlled, and all of the usual firewall checks are in place.
Each bridge group includes a Bridge Virtual Interface (BVI). The ASA uses the BVI IP address as the source address for packets originating from the bridge group. The BVI IP address must be on the same subnet as the bridge group member interfaces. The BVI does not support traffic on secondary networks; only traffic on the same network as the BVI IP address is supported.
You can include multiple interfaces per bridge group. If you use more than 2 interfaces per bridge group, you can control communication between multiple segments on the same network, and not just between inside and outside. For example, if you have three inside segments that you do not want to communicate with each other, you can put each segment on a separate interface, and only allow them to communicate with the outside interface. Or you can customize the access rules between interfaces to allow only as much access as desired.
Reference:
Note: BVI interface is not used for management purpose. But we can add a separate Management slot/port interface that is not part of any bridge group, and that allows only management traffic to the ASA.

NEW QUESTION # 416
A network engineer must configure a Cisco ESA to prompt users to enter two forms of information before gaining access The Cisco ESA must also join a cluster machine using preshared keys What must be configured to meet these requirements?

• A. Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server and then join the cluster by using the Cisco ESA GUI
• B. Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server and then join the cluster by using the Cisco ESA GUI.
• C. Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server and then join the cluster by using the Cisco ESA CLI.
• D. Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server and then join the cluster by using the Cisco ESA CLI

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 417
In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint Protection Platform?

• A. when there is no need to have the solution centrally managed
• B. when there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities
• C. when there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection
• D. when there te no firewall on the network

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 418
What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

• A. HTTPS file upload site
• B. SQL database injections
• C. encrypted SMTP
• D. Microsoft Windows network shares

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 419
Drag and drop the NetFlow export formats from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 420
Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2 instance in Amazon Web Services.

Answer:

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 421
Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?

• A. PaaS
• B. XaaS
• C. SaaS
• D. IaaS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cloud computing can be broken into the following three basic models:
+ Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS): IaaS describes a cloud solution where you are renting infrastructure. You purchase virtual power to execute your software as needed. This is much like running a virtual server on your own equipment, except you are now running a virtual server on a virtual disk. This model is similar to a utility company model because you pay for what you use.
+ Platform as a Service (PaaS): PaaS provides everything except applications. Services provided by this model include all phases of the system development life cycle (SDLC) and can use application programming interfaces (APIs), website portals, or gateway software. These solutions tend to be proprietary, which can cause problems if the customer moves away from the provider's platform.
+ Software as a Service (SaaS): SaaS is designed to provide a complete packaged solution. The software is rented out to the user. The service is usually provided through some type of front end or web portal. While the end user is free to use the service from anywhere, the company pays a peruse fee.
Reference: CCNP and CCIE Security Core SCOR 350-701 Official Cert Guide

NEW QUESTION # 422
Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? {Choose two.)

• A. HMAC-SHA1/SHA2
• B. AES-ABC
• C. Triple AMC-CBC
• D. AES-BAC
• E. AES-CBC

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_conn_vpnips/configuration/15-mt/sec-sec-for-vpns-w-ipsec-15-mt-book/sec-cfg-vpn-ipsec.html

NEW QUESTION # 423
Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose two.)

• A. Layer 4 switches can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.
• B. It requires a PAC file for the client web browser.
• C. It can handle explicit HTTP requests.
• D. It requires a proxy for the client web browser.
• E. WCCP v2-enabled devices can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

Answer: A,E

NEW QUESTION # 424

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance. What is causing this issue?

• A. No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance.
• B. The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.
• C. Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.
• D. Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 425
Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

• A. Quarantine
• B. FilterAction
• C. Defang
• D. ScreenAction

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 426
What is a description of microsegmentation?

• A. Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container.
• B. Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery.
• C. Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.
• D. Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network security strategy that breaks a network into smaller network "segments" to boost security and control over data traffic1. Unlike traditional network security, which primarily defends the network's outer boundaries, microsegmentation focuses on securing individual workloads and devices within the network2. Microsegmentation uses an allow-list model to significantly reduce the attack surface across different workload types and environments3. Microsegmentation is also referred to as application segmentation or east-west segmentation in a multicloud data center4.
Option B is the correct description of microsegmentation, as it captures the essence of applying a zero-trust model and specifying how applications on different servers or containers can communicate. Option A is incorrect, as deploying a container orchestration platform is not a sufficient condition for microsegmentation.
Option C is incorrect, as deploying host-based firewall rules is not a necessary condition for microsegmentation. Option D is incorrect, as implementing private VLAN segmentation is a different technique from microsegmentation. References: An Introduction to Microsegmentation in Network Security. What Is Micro-Segmentation? - Cisco. What Is Microsegmentation? - Palo Alto Networks. What Is Microsegmentation in Networking? Beginner's Guide.

NEW QUESTION # 427
Which risk is created when using an Internet browser to access cloud-based service?

• A. misconfiguration of Infra, which allows unauthorized access
• B. vulnerabilities within protocol
• C. insecure implementation of API
• D. intermittent connection to the cloud connectors

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 428
What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before granting access to corporate applications and resources?

• A. to use strong passwords
• B. to use a wired network, not wireless
• C. to use multifactor authentication
• D. to disconnect from the network when inactive

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 429
An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new endpoint group. Which probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?

• A. DHCP
• B. NMAP
• C. NetFlow
• D. SNMP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 430
Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two)

• A. Pull messaging
• B. Binding
• C. Correlation
• D. Exchange
• E. Mitigating

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
The Trusted Automated eXchangeof Indicator Information (TAXII) specifies mechanisms for exchanging structured cyber threat information between parties over the network.
TAXII exists to provide specific capabilities to those interested in sharing structured cyber threat information.
TAXII Capabilities are the highest level at which TAXII actions can be described. There are three capabilities that this version of TAXII supports: push messaging, pull messaging, and discovery.
Although there is no "binding" capability in the list but it is the best answer here.

NEW QUESTION # 431
An administrator is configuring a DHCP server to better secure their environment. They need to be able to rate-limit the traffic and ensure that legitimate requests are not dropped. How would this be accomplished?

• A. Add entries in the DHCP snooping database
• B. Enable ARP inspection for the required VLAN
• C. Set a trusted interface for the DHCP server
• D. Set the DHCP snooping bit to 1

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 432
Which Cisco security solution provides patch management in the cloud?

• A. Cisco CloudLock
• B. Cisco Umbrella
• C. Cisco Tetration
• D. Cisco ISE

Answer: C

Explanation:
Cisco Tetration is a Cisco security solution that provides patch management in the cloud. Patch management is the process of identifying, acquiring, installing, and verifying patches for products and systems to correct security and functionality problems in software and firmware1. Cisco Tetration is a cloud-native platform that delivers comprehensive workload protection for multicloud data centers by enabling a zero-trust model using segmentation2. One of the features of Cisco Tetration is software vulnerability detection and patch management, which allows users to identify software vulnerabilities on workloads, prioritize patching based on risk scores, and automate patch deployment using orchestration tools3. Cisco Tetration leverages the National Vulnerability Database (NVD) and Cisco Talos Intelligence Group to provide up-to-date information on software vulnerabilities and their severity levels3. Cisco Tetration also supports patch management for both Windows and Linux operating systems, as well as third-party applications such as Apache, Java, MySQL, and Oracle4. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Cisco Tetration. References: 1: RFC 9232: Network Telemetry Framework - Internet Engineering Task Force 2: Cisco Tetration - Workload Protection - Cisco 3: Cisco Tetration Software Vulnerability Detection and Patch Management - Cisco 4: Cisco Tetration Platform Data Sheet - Cisco

NEW QUESTION # 433
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Cisco 350-701 exam is one of the most challenging exams in the IT industry. It requires extensive knowledge of network security, cloud computing, and cybersecurity. It is recommended that candidates have at least three to five years of experience in the IT industry before attempting 350-701 exam to have a solid understanding of the concepts covered in the exam. 350-701 exam consists of multiple-choice questions, drag and drop, and simulation questions.

 

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